On 2005-05-05, EvelynVogtGamble(Divamanque) penned:
Monique Y. Mudama wrote:
Is this really the way it works? I could've sworn we (Colorado)
recently switched to no-fault, but I've been hit twice since I got
my car last year, and both times the other guy's insurance company
paid for the damages.
Maybe there was a "changeover" period before it actually took
effect? SFAIK, Annie's description is the way it's SUPPOSED to
work. (Although there may be differences in details, in the various
states that have it.)
Google knows all:
http://www.dora.state.co.us/dora_pages/faq.htm
Quote:
What is "no-fault" auto insurance?
No-fault insurance, also known as PIP or Personal Injury Protection,
provides coverage for certain medical and rehabilitation expenses from
injuries sustained in an automobile accident. It pays benefits for
injuries whether or not the insured person is negligent or "at fault".
(Property damage is the responsibility of the at-fault party.) The
no-fault law expires on July 1, 2003. All policies with an effective
date on or after July 1 will be issued under a "tort" auto insurance
law.
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So ... sounds like we're not no-fault anymore. I had it backwards. But
even if we were, the at-fault person would still have to pay property
damages.
--
monique, who spoils Oscar unmercifully
pictures:
http://www.bounceswoosh.org/rpca