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#311
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David Stevenson wrote:
American culture. . Your criticism of the word seemed an insult to that culture. That's paranoia. There are no doubt things in British TV that annoy you. That is not an attack on British culture, and in fact is not an attack. You have a perfect right to likes and dislikes - in fact you would hardly be a human being otherwise - and that does not constitute an attack. You know, Dave, when someone tells you that they feel offended by a comment you have made, the sensitive response would be to apologize, or at the very least, to try to understand why they might feel as they do. You might not have intended offense - and most people who commit an offense *don't* intend to do so - but nonetheless, it's a multicultural group here, and it's inevitable that occasionally, one of us will unintentionally step on someone else's toes. It's a learning experience for all of us. So why are you refusing to learn? Why do you insist on being so defensive about it? Nobody said you did it deliberately to insult them. But it does add insult to injury when people try to tell you they were offended and you respond by telling them all the reasons why their feelings are "wrong". I wasn't even offended by the comments about "mom", because I don't think I even realized that "mom" is so intrinsic to American culture (duh) - I never used that word, and nobody I knew ever did either. (BTW, I mentioned this earlier, but that post seemed to get lost in the shuffle. Not *all* Americans call their mothers "mom"!) However, I am getting annoyed at your refusal to listen to what other people are trying to tell you. I suggest you stop insisting that you are right and they are wrong, and learn something! Joyce |
#312
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Jette Goldie wrote:
My name - as given to me by my parents - is perhaps a little difficult for the average Scot to pronounce - Georgette, with a soft French G So is it pronounced "Zheor-zhette" (the "zh" is like the s in "vision", or like the j in the French "je".) Or is one of the G's like the English j (like "jello", etc)? So why the h*ll does my HR department insist on calling me "Jetty"? Probably because some people named Bette pronounce it "Betty" (eg, Bette Davis). Of course, others pronounce it "Bet" (Bette Midler). But since "Jette" isn't a common name here, people might be taking their cue from Bette, since that's a similar spelling. Just a theory, not a justification... "but shouldn't it have one of those thingies over the last E?" If there were an acute over the last e, it would be pronounced "Jet-AY", not "Jet-ty", LOL! Joyce |
#313
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David Yehudah wrote:
Patty? Why, she wouldn't say it if she had a mouthful of it. A real lady, she is. (Am I spreading it thick enough, yet?) I'm drowning in it, Dave. Are you talking about "Potty-mouth Patty" here?? If I get really angry at her, which is rare because she really is a sweetheart, I vent my spleen to the furniture in either Spanish or Arabic, neither of which she speaks. Didn't know you spoke Arabic - are you fluent in it? You also speak Hebrew, don't you? Are you just a language maven? It always impresses me when someone can speak several languages. Joyce |
#315
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Victor Martinez wrote:
David Yehudah wrote: Since I have two Spanish-speakers here - Mexican Spanish, no less - I'd like to ask a question. Last week I spent a day helping a friend with her work. She had an employee who is from Mexico and didn't speak a lot of English. When I had to speak to Ceci (the employee), we kind of stumbled around with her poor English and my poor Spanish. We did OK, actually. However, I noticed that she always addressed me using the formal ("usted") form, even though we were on the same level (both working for the same person). I am much older than she is, so that might be why she was so formal. Or maybe she is used to calling all Norteamericanos "usted" (when they understand Spanish). Because I'm far more used to using the "tu" form, due to years of using it in Spanish classes, and in conversations with just about everyone I've ever spoken to, those verb forms come more easily to me than the formal forms do. So anyway, we had her addressing me in the formal, and me addressing her in the informal. I kind of wanted to tell her there was no need for her to use such formal language with me, but I didn't because who am I to tell her how to use her own language?? Maybe to her it would have felt really inappropriate to use the informal with me. My question is, was I insulting toward her to use the informal? Joyce |
#316
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Kreisleriana wrote:
I don't think David meant any offense either, but he does not seem to want to acknowledge that there was a sensitivity possible in his posting, and the way he posted it, and that he may have made a mistake or miscalculation. Of course, many thing we say have unintended consequences. When we grow up, we learn to try to be gracious when we make those kinds of mistakes, instead of telling the people we may have offended that they are wrong and we are right. *Exactly*. You've nailed it. If you accidentally step on someone's foot and they yell "ouch!", do you start telling them that you didn't intend to hurt them, so why are they being so sensitive? No, if you're a decent human being, you apologize. Does apologizing mean you are blaming yourself for it? Not necessarily - accidents happen to everyone, and often they're not anyone's fault. Nonetheless, the polite and considerate thing to do is to apologize for causing someone hurt. It doesn't matter whether it was intentional or not. Joyce |
#317
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Har. As a Spanish-speaking Gringo deep in the heart of Hispanic culture down
here in south FL, from personal experience I've gleaned that yes, it is a courtesy to use the formal pronoun to either strangers or older folk; from long years speaking Spanish @ work to all manner of Hispanics, that the only ones who ever "raised a hackle" i.e. seemed taken aback much less "insulted" by use of familiar pronouns were Spaniards from Spain (the most formal-talking Hispanics I know of) and Argentines. Although, Joyce, even though I've been speaking Spanish since 9th grade, always use the formal pronoun myself (in a "can't go wrong" mentality) as my first teacher of the language was a Mexican who stressed vigorously the courtesy and appropriateness interwoven in his native language (i.e. as he himself said, he was training us, his rowdy 14-year-old students, to "interact flawlessly" with the people of Spain. We spent many a week in playacting ordering meals, theater tickets, public conveyance tickets, airplane ettiquette, etc. - all in the classroom. God bless Thomas Renedo, who now lives in a large retirement home about a mile from my house, for training my budding wannabe-Hispanic self in this manner. wrote in message ... : Victor Martinez wrote: : : David Yehudah wrote: : : Since I have two Spanish-speakers here - Mexican Spanish, no less - I'd : like to ask a question. Last week I spent a day helping a friend with her : work. She had an employee who is from Mexico and didn't speak a lot of : English. When I had to speak to Ceci (the employee), we kind of stumbled : around with her poor English and my poor Spanish. We did OK, actually. : However, I noticed that she always addressed me using the formal ("usted") : form, even though we were on the same level (both working for the same : person). I am much older than she is, so that might be why she was so formal. : Or maybe she is used to calling all Norteamericanos "usted" (when they : understand Spanish). : : Because I'm far more used to using the "tu" form, due to years of using it : in Spanish classes, and in conversations with just about everyone I've ever : spoken to, those verb forms come more easily to me than the formal forms : do. So anyway, we had her addressing me in the formal, and me addressing : her in the informal. I kind of wanted to tell her there was no need for : her to use such formal language with me, but I didn't because who am I to : tell her how to use her own language?? Maybe to her it would have felt : really inappropriate to use the informal with me. My question is, was I : insulting toward her to use the informal? : : Joyce |
#318
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Precisely. It's usually quite clear to whom one is speaking. For
example, if someone introduces himself to me as "Bob Jones," and he is obviously the MD you have been waiting to see, it is not really polite to keep calling him "Bob" in a professional setting. If, however, you are in a social setting and he introduces himself as "Bob Jones" and you gauge him to be about your social equal, he has no reason to correct you for calling him "Bob." Case in point, a good acquaintance of mine at the synagogue turned out to be a full bird colonel in the air force and an MD, but he insisted I call him "Jacob." I remember when I arrived at university for enrollment, there were long lines of prospective students waiting to see the registrars. One of them came up and said, "Hi, I'm Roger Webb. May I help you?" From then on for several days he was good 'ol Roger. Then I found out he was not only a Ph.d and a full professor, he was also the president of the university. I agree with you that people who introduce themselves by their title are being a bit too formal to be polite. I never do, myself, but there are occasions when it is acceptable. For example, very few academics liked to be called by their first name by their students. To me it's basically good manners. I had a few professors in college that asked to be called by their first name, but I always felt uncomfortable doing so. Victor Martinez wrote: IMO, one only uses the professional title in a professional setting. I have no problem calling folks by their first name on a social setting if that is how we were introduced. And if someone comes an introduces themselves as "Hi, I'm Dr. so and so or Professor so and so"... then those people need to have their egos shot down. |
#319
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Then someone who spoke French (badly) would wait for you to finish the
sentence, as in "Je te. . ." wrote: If there were an acute over the last e, it would be pronounced "Jet-AY", not "Jet-ty", LOL! Joyce |
#320
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I know a few curse words in Arabic. That's one of the things that annoys
Arabs in general; Hebrew has no curse words, so the Israelis curse in Arabic. The worst you can do in Hebrew is "atta beheymah (you're an animal)" or "lech l'Azazel (go to the devil). I like the Arabic words because they mean things a lot nastier than the usual English curse words. Same with Spanish. :-) Over the years I've learned to speak several languages fluently, but between lack of practice and several strokes, I can no longer claim fluency in any except Spanish. Here in SoCal I get a lot of practice. wrote: David Yehudah wrote: Patty? Why, she wouldn't say it if she had a mouthful of it. A real lady, she is. (Am I spreading it thick enough, yet?) I'm drowning in it, Dave. Are you talking about "Potty-mouth Patty" here?? If I get really angry at her, which is rare because she really is a sweetheart, I vent my spleen to the furniture in either Spanish or Arabic, neither of which she speaks. Didn't know you spoke Arabic - are you fluent in it? You also speak Hebrew, don't you? Are you just a language maven? It always impresses me when someone can speak several languages. Joyce |
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